Do women own their husbands?

2 yrs

Comment

Ha! No.

· 1670272712

5 Replies

A man can never belong to his woman. It is Scripturally impossible. He may act that way, she may think he does, but both are fooling themselves. There is exactly zero in Scripture that supports the man belonging to his woman.

· Reply · 1670289247

The reason I brought this up was as I was browsing through a thread on BF, one of the men was responding to a woman poster and mentioned the SHARING of her husband with another woman. The term share implies ownership, you have to be in control of it to share it and when you share it you have a lesser portion than you had before. I think this terminology is incorrect and casts a negative light on biblical marriage, which includes the option of polygyny. It is a scarcity based statement, rather than something of abundance or prosperity. A wife is a good thing, so why wouldn't another wife be a good thing? It should help build up the house, not bring shame to it. We don't mention ourselves as sharing Messiah, he shares himself with us. Out of his abundance he shares with us he is generous towards us. He makes himself available and gives to us as he pleases, can we place demands on him or do we make requests? Every time one of us comes to him, do we get jealous of them? or do we rejoice? If he is our husband and we are his bride, and marriage is a reflection of his relationship with us. Why would we refer to a husbands generosity towards another woman negatively?

· 1670299569

2 Replies

I hear what you guys are saying... what would you say to the point that Scripture says to let each woman have her "own" husband?

· 1670332807

3 Replies

Context required:
What is intended by the use of the word "own"?
No man owns himself, nor any woman herself, for we are owned by our creator (see the Maxim of Law: "The Creator is the Owner" ), so acknowledging yahuah's supreme and inviolable claim on every one of us, what is intended by "own"?

· 1670363489

16 Replies

And I will show you a new thing a woman will encompass a man ...

· 1670379280

1 Reply

Jeremiah 31....

· Reply · 1670379394

Please define your definition of "own" as it can have either a negative or positive connection.

· 1670517466

2 Replies

There is record of people having multiple wives in the bible but it does not necessarily mean it is a good thing. One example is of Jacob who took both Liah and Rachel as his wives. As a side note, this is wrong according to Leviticus 18:18: You shall not marry a woman in addition to her sister as a rival while she is alive, to uncover her nakedness. This is one of two laws that I could find of which it could be said that it is possible that they indicate that God MIGHT tolerate the having of multiple wives. Here is the other law: “If a man has two wives, the one loved and the other unloved, and both the loved and the unloved have borne him sons, if the firstborn son belongs to the unloved, then it shall be in the day he wills what he has to his sons, he cannot make the son of the loved the firstborn before the son of the unloved, who is the firstborn.
Deuteronomy 21:15‭-‬16.
It is important to keep in mind that just because this verse SEEMS to be addressing the case of a man who has two wives at the same time, we should also consider that it may be referring to a man who married again after his initial wife died.

Despite the above examples which MIGHT indicate God's possible tolerance with polygamy, I can not find any indication through the Torah and Prophets that it is pleasing to God for a man to have multiple wives. In fact, there are some verses that give the indication that it is really not a good thing. God says that a king "...shall not multiply wives for himself, or else his heart will turn away; nor shall he greatly increase silver and gold for himself."
Deuteronomy 17:17
If a king's heart will be turned away, how would any other man's heart be different in this?
Jesus explained heightened requirement for some of the instructions given. One of the topics that he addressed is with divorse: …“Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
Matthew 19:8‭-‬9 NASB1995
Also in reference to adultery: …"but I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart."
Matthew 5:28
In another spot Jesus makes it clear that "“Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery" Luke 16:18.
So if it were okay for a man to marry multiple wives, then why is it not okay to do so again once he divorces one of them? (Keeping in mind that the only reason he should have divorced her is for immorality as noted earlier. )
In another spot Jesus quotes the definition of marriage: ... a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’...
Matthew 19:5
The fact that Jesus does not say wives but wife in a singular form seems important. He also goes on to say that the two shall become one flesh.

The 2nd verse of 1 Corinthians 7 should be considered: But because of immoralities, each man is to have his own wife, and each woman is to have her own husband.

There is record of people having multiple wives in the bible but it does not necessarily mean it is a good thing. One example is of Jacob who took both Liah and Rachel as his wives. As a side note, this is wrong according to Leviticus 18:18: You shall not marry a woman in addition to her sister as a rival while she is alive, to uncover her nakedness. This is one of two laws that I could find of which it could be said that it is possible that they indicate that God MIGHT tolerate the having of multiple wives. Here is the other law: “If a man has two wives, the one loved and the other unloved, and both the loved and the unloved have borne him sons, if the firstborn son belongs to the unloved, then it shall be in the day he wills what he has to his sons, he cannot make the son of the loved the firstborn before the son of the unloved, who is the firstborn. 
Deuteronomy 21:15‭-‬16.  
It is important to keep in mind that just because this verse SEEMS to be addressing the case of a man who has two wives at the same time, we should also consider that it may be referring to a man who married again after his initial wife died. 
 
Despite the above examples which MIGHT indicate God's possible tolerance with polygamy, I can not find any indication through the Torah and Prophets that it is pleasing to God for a man to have multiple wives. In fact, there are some verses that give the indication that it is really not a good thing. God says that a king "...shall not multiply wives for himself, or else his heart will turn away; nor shall he greatly increase silver and gold for himself." 
Deuteronomy 17:17  
If a king's heart will be turned away, how would any other man's heart be different in this?  
Jesus explained heightened requirement for some of the instructions given. One of the topics that he addressed is with divorse: …“Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” 
Matthew 19:8‭-‬9 NASB1995 
Also in reference to adultery: …"but I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart." 
Matthew 5:28  
In another spot Jesus makes it clear that "“Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery" Luke 16:18.  
So if it were okay for a man to marry multiple wives, then why is it not okay to do so again once he divorces one of them? (Keeping in mind that the only reason he should have divorced her is for immorality as noted earlier. ) 
In another spot Jesus quotes the definition of marriage: ... a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’... 
Matthew 19:5  
The fact that Jesus does not say wives but wife in a singular form seems important. He also goes on to say that the two shall become one flesh.  
 
The 2nd verse of 1 Corinthians 7 should be considered: But because of immoralities, each man is to have his own wife, and each woman is to have her own husband.

· Reply · 1670701342

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