70th week of Daniel
I like to question everything. Not out of rebellion, but because I want to learn. I like deep discussions as it gives everyone a chance to share their understanding.
The 70th week of Daniel has been sitting a bit "skew" in my throat for quite some time. My thinking is, why would this one prophecy be broken up in such a way; 69 weeks + 1 week 2000 years later. Are we taught this due to "traditions of men" and now hold onto it as it is truth?
We are told that it refers to the anti-Christ, but if the verse is read through different glasses then it looks more like it could be speaking of Yeshua ending the sacrifices...
If we calculate the initial 69 weeks then if comes to when Yeshua started His ministry. The standard belief is that He ministered for 3.5 years and was then crucified. At His crucifixion the veil in the temple was ripped; top down. Therefore sacrifices should strictly have stopped at that point.
I can't find a marker 3.5 years after Yeshua's crucifixion to complete the 70th week if this interpretation of the prophecy is correct.
What are your thoughts on this?
Rhy Bezuidenhout
1. Human sacrifice is an abomonation for Father. That is why Baal worship is no sinful. If Yeshua was sacrificed on the cross then is can be understood as the abomonation which made the daily sacrifice desolate...
2. I have historically always seen Yeshua as gentle and meek and only ascribe those kinds of verses to Him. I have come to realize that that is not the picture of when He overturned the moneychangers' tables in the temple. Nor when He returns and makes war against the nations. Why then read into the 70th week that it must be the anti-Christ who stops the daily and not Yeshua?
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GidgetsMom
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GidgetsMom
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Rhy Bezuidenhout
It talks of rebuilding Jerusalem and not the temple. We have been taught to read "temple" into the verse, but it talks about the city and walks being rebuilt as was done when Darius gave the order.
Verse 26-27 is where I believe the confusion comes in: "Then after the sixty-two weeks [of years] the Anointed One will be cut off [and denied His Messianic kingdom] and have nothing [and no one to defend Him], and the people of the [other] prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. Its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. 27 And he will enter into a binding and irrevocable covenant with the many for one week..."
V26 talk about Yeshua, then about a people of the prince and then v27 talks about a "he". The general teaching is that that "he" is the prince of the people, but why don't we read it as being Yeshua as the other prince isn't even on the scene?
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Isaac Cruz
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