Joshua 5:2
YHVH commands joshua to circumcise the israelites the second time again…rather oddly phrased.
But why? rabbinical commentaries go a bit far trying to explain this one, somehow the north wind gets involved, but could it be that...

Now while IN egypt, the israelites did still circumcise their males on the eighth day (while still under the reproach of egypt, see verse 9 - today I have rolled away the reproach of egypt from you - ), moses, who'd fled OUT of egypt into the wilderness around midian, didn't circumcise his new son born there (refer exodus 4:25 - where zipporah quickly did it to appease YHVH -), and neither did the israelites circumcise once OUT of egypt all the time while in the wilderness until now, in joshua 5, after entering the promised land, at last.

And in genesis 17:11 Elohim says the circumcision is the sign of the covenant made with abraham, and in that covenant He explicitly states that He will be their Elohim (gen17:7-8). the result of not circumcising? Verse 14, he will be cut off from his people.

Super interesting, because ishmael, as a child of abraham, was also physically circumcised, as they still are today. And so the israelites not doing this in their wilderness time has ‘cut’ them off from the 'rest' of abraham’s offspring, separating isaac from ishmael, as it were. And so now a second time YHVH recommands the sign of the covenant, this time only with the children of israel.…
And the reproach of egypt (of following other gods and not being cut off from ishmael yet?), is at last rolled away.

Could this be behind that second circumcision?