Romans 3 says that nobody can be justified by the Law, but it also says that the Law defines sin and we shouldn't go on sinning once we have been saved from our sins. What does it mean, then, for Jesus to have fulfilled the Law? Do we have to keep obeying the Law of Moses even though Jesus fulfilled it already?

https://www.americantorah.com/....2022/05/17/acts-15-r

Hi everyone. Ive just joined. Ive been saved for 10 years and ive been led to seek my people as i don't have church for reasons i won't go into, but my Grandfather was a Sephardic Jew, and I think this has significance, which all the Christians i know disagree with, but I know Gods telling me it does have some significance, and anyway, not debating that, just i would like to fellowship with Messianic Jews. Does anyone know where i can fellowship in any way with any, I'm in the UK but willing to fellowship with any anywhere if its the right path for me from God.
Thanks, Amber

Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.
Romans 3:31 ESV

When we are under the Law, we are under its condemnation, but being no longer under the Law doesn’t mean that it no longer informs our behavior and conscience. We uphold God’s Law because it is an extension and reflection of his character and we are his people.

Something "clicked" earlier when I reread my poem for the first time in 14 years. The world was saved from peril by two Josephs each going to Egypt ahead of trouble. Joseph, Israels son, advised pharoah to avoid certain death for the world by following the guidance of Yah. Joseph, the husband of Mary, took the toddling Messiah to Egypt at the prompting of a messenger so He could grow up and save the world from the second death.

For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of law.
Romans 3:28

Even if you never committed another sin after today, you could never achieve the infinite righteousness necessary to measure up to God's standard. God alone has the power to set aside our guilt and designed a mechanism by which it could be done through his own power. The infinitely perfect God had to become an infinitely perfect man and die for the sins of the rest of us in order to deflect God’s righteous judgment onto himself.

Do you have questions? 🤣🤣
It's probably time for another Q & A video as I've not done one for awhile. Post here or message me if you have questions you want me to address and I'll make a Q & A this weekend. Ask me anything --- ministry, Bible, personal --- Q & A videos are my favorite! 🥰🥰

What are practical examples of how we can obey Torah's command to pull our neighbors donkey out of the ditch?

I'll go first. If you see your neighbors beloved cat or dog far from home and you know it's owner doesn't know, I should probably stop and collect the animal or at least make a phone call.

[Jesus' blood shows God's] righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
Romans 3:26

By declining to punish sin in the here and now when he is within his rights, he demonstrates his righteousness and the ultimate justice of his judgment. When he finally judges mankind, no one will have an excuse, because he gave us ample time to repent or to prove our sinfulness. He is just because he establishes the Law and the guilt of lawbreakers, but he justifies those who have faith in Yeshua by setting aside their guilt.

“His righteousness” is dikaiosune, which is the same root as justify. Everywhere the English says “justify” in the New Testament, read it as “made/declared righteous”.

Here is a Scriptural based poem I wrote in 2010. I never published it because it was too expensive & I didnt have an illustrator. I intended it as a childrens poem, but my daughter says it would be offensive because it mentions circumcision. I no longer use "Yahushua", rather "Yeshua" but the meter is ruined if I change it. Perhaps this will give someone a bedtime story for their little one. Enjoy!